Understanding intraday credit in large-value payment systems.
Zhou, Ruilin
Introduction and summary
A large-value (or wholesale) payment system is a contractual and
operational arrangement that banks and other financial institutions use
to transfer large-value, time-critical funds to each other. It is
operated either by a central bank or by a coalition of banks and
financial institutions. In the U.S., the two largest and most commonly
used large-value payment systems are Fedwire and CHIPS (Clearing House
Interbank Payments System). Fedwire is a service provided by the Federal
Reserve banks to about 10,000 depository institutions and government
agencies for transferring funds and federal and agency securities. CHIPS
is owned and operated by the Clearing House Interbank Payments Company
L.L.C., whose members consist of 79 of the world's largest
commercial banks.
The growth of the payment industry has been phenomenal. For
example, the combined annual value of transfers through Fedwire and
CHIPS was about 67 times U.S. gross domestic product (GDP) in 1988 and
climbed to 89 times in 1999. The average daily value of transfers
processed by the two systems reached $3,257.15 billion, about 35 percent
of annual GDP, in 1999.
These staggering numbers give a glimpse of the increasing
importance of large-value payment systems to the health and efficiency
of the financial systems that our fast growing and ever more integrated
national and international economies depend upon. The Federal Reserve,
as well as other central banks around the world, has long recognized
this importance, and continues to design and implement policies to
ensure the proper and efficient operation of payment systems.
In this article, I examine the key issues in large-value payment
systems and the optimal payment system design that addresses these
issues. First, I discuss the main conflict faced by a large-value
payment system--shortage of settlement liquidity versus potential credit
risk--through the mechanics of the two main classes of payment systems.
Customers of a real-time gross settlement (RTGS) system are constantly
in need of liquidity to settle payments in real time, while those of a
net settlement (NS) system face the uncertainty of potential settlement
failure. The focus of this article is the remedy for liquidity shortage
in a real-time gross settlement system, the provision of intraday liquidity by the central bank, and the policies designed to reduce the
central bank's resulting exposure to credit risk. I describe three
intraday-credit policies commonly used by central banks: a cap on an
institution's net debit position during the day, an interest charge
on the usage of intraday credit, and a collateral req uirement to back
the extension of intraday credit. In particular, I discuss the
experience of Fedwire after the introduction of the first two policies.
The way a large-value payment system works and its key issues
define the criteria for theoretical modeling, a common approach adopted
by modern day economists to study optimal institutional design. I
propose four main criteria that a payment system model should satisfy.
First, it should directly model the underlying transactions of goods or
financial assets for which payments have to be made so that the system
design affects the allocation of real resources. Having met the first
requirement, the model should treat consumption/investment debt, which
is generated by the underlying real resources transaction, as distinct
from payment debt, which is created only for payment needs. The final
two criteria have to do with the two sides of the main conflict; the
model should incorporate both settlement liquidity shortage and credit
risk, preferably generated endogenously by agents' choice or
action.
The existing theoretical research on payment systems typically does
not meet all four proposed criteria. It mostly focuses either on
liquidity or risk and rarely models demand for settlement liquidity as a
derived demand. Nevertheless, the literature provides significant
insights into the merits of the three intraday-credit policies. I review
this body of literature and find that articles focusing on credit risk
as the main difficulty of a payment system tend to support the
imposition of caps and collateral requirements, while those focusing on
liquidity shortage support unconditional free provision of intraday
credit by the central bank. There is one argument that supports the
interest charge policy, but only as an outcome of another central bank
policy, the non-interest bearing overnight reserve requirement.
I employ a model developed by Freeman (1996), which, to a large
extent, satisfies all four measures [1] to explore some different
insights into the payment problem. The original Freeman model is
designed to study the use of open-market operations and the discount
window in conducting monetary policy in environments with a liquidity
shortage. To make the model better suited for settlement of payments, I
assume that the underlying goods transaction is accomplished through a
pairwise trade so that one debtor owes payment to one creditor, rather
than each creditor holding a diversified portfolio of debt issued by
different debtors, as in Freeman's model. To demonstrate explicitly
the distinction between consumption debt and payment debt, I introduce
money growth into the model, but maintain Freeman's assumption that
there is no intertemporal real resources allocation opportunity within a
day. Finally, I interpret the debt settlement market as a payment
clearing market, resale of debt as private intraday borrowin g/lending
of reserves, and central bank injection of liquidity as intraday-credit
lending rather than an open market operation or discount window lending.
My analysis leads to the following conclusions. First, when credit
risk is not of concern, the interest rate (that is, the risk-free rate)
on intraday credit should be zero. The overnight nominal interest rate,
which serves to achieve efficient intertemporal allocation of real
resources, is governed by the money growth rate. [2] Setting the
intraday rate to zero is optimal because the sole purpose of intraday
credit is to settle payments made for underlying transactions of goods
and financial assets. Hence, the cost of intraday credit constitutes a
transaction cost of the underlying goods/assets trade, and should be
minimized to distort as little as possible the intertemporal allocation
of real resources. For the same reason, any private provision of
intraday liquidity through a market-like mechanism that generates a
positive intraday risk-free rate is inefficient. Second, when a
particular type of credit risk is under consideration, namely, aggregate
default risk in the same model, [3] the free provision of intraday
liquidity by the central bank remains the optimal policy (Freeman,
1999). Such a policy may inadvertently lead to price fluctuation and
inflation because when some agents default on their payments, the
central bank's temporary injection of settlement liquidity becomes
permanent. Despite this potential side effect, free lending acts as an
insurance mechanism that transforms the default risk, which would have
been borne disproportionately by a subgroup of payment system users, to
inflation risk that affects everyone with much less severity.
The conclusions of the model depend critically on the assumption
that there is no need or opportunity to optimize the timing of
consumption and production over the course of a single "day."
A "day" can be interpreted as any length of time. The results
will hold for any time interval for which the assumption remains valid.
In the actual economy, despite the common practice of
end-of-business-day settlement in the majority of payment systems,
identifying the appropriate length of time for which one can reasonably
claim that the assumption is valid is beyond the scope of this article.
As communication technology linking financial markets in time zones
around the world continues to advance, the length of time for which the
assumption remains valid will presumably decline. Along the course of
this development, policies to prevent credit intended for payment
services from being used for short-term investments and speculations,
including those that shorten the settlement period, may need to be
considered.
How payment systems work
A fund transfer from bank A to bank B is usually accomplished in
the following fashion. First, the sending bank A initiates the transfer
by sending a payment message regarding the impending transfer to the
payment system, which after processing is delivered to the receiving
bank B. Then, either immediately or at some fixed time after the payment
information is processed, the actual settlement occurs. The conventional
means of settlement of large-value funds transfer systems is central
bank funds (base money). So at the settlement stage, bank A's
reserve or clearing account at the central bank is debited and bank
B's account is credited. A settlement is final if the funds
received by bank B are irrevocable (except in cases involving criminal
fraud).
According to the way settlement takes place, a payment system can
be classified into a gross settlement system (GS) or a net settlement
system. With a gross settlement system, fund transfers at the settlement
stage occur on a bilateral, gross (that is, transaction by transaction)
basis. A common form of GS large-value payment system is the real-time
gross settlement system, at which both the information processing and
settlement take place continuously in real time. With a net settlement
system, payment messages are processed continuously in real time, but
settlement occurs only at the end of a clearing cycle, on a net
debit/credit, bilateral, or multilateral basis.
RTGS versus NS systems
For a given payment system, the parties involved in a funds
transfer, the sending bank and the receiving bank, face different
problems. To understand this, let us consider the complete life cycle of
a funds transfer. Suppose a manufacturing company I purchases $10
million worth of computer equipment and services from company II. The
contract stipulates that on the day all purchased equipment and services
are delivered, say, August 1, 2000, company I makes its $10 million
payment to company II. On August 1, 2000, after verifying the delivery
of its purchase, company I instructs its bank, bank A, to send $10
million to company II's account at bank B. Bank A may make the
funds transfer right away upon request Wit is able to or it can delay it
if the contact permits. Under an RTGS system, bank B will receive the
transfer with finality as soon as bank A's payment order is
processed. Under an NS system with end-of-business-day settlement, bank
B receives the message of $10 million incoming transfer once the system
accepts bank A's payment order, but will know for sure whether the
transfer is settled with finality only at the end of the day. This is
just one outgoing funds request for bank A, and one incoming funds
transfer for bank B during the day. Potentially, both banks may receive
many such payment orders throughout the day. In general, a bank has
little control over the arrival of its customers' outgoing payment
requests, whether they are urgent (time-sensitive) requests, and the
flow of its incoming funds transfers (which depend on other banks'
timing decisions of payment initiation). For these reasons, contracting
a precise-time funds transfer between companies I and II may be very
costly. The end-of-business day settlement of a transaction is often the
convention, possibly the best that can be accomplished. [4]
Under an RTGS system, bank B, the receiving bank, enjoys the
real-time settlement finality; the $10 million, once received, can be
used to cover outgoing payments the rest of the day without any
uncertainty. Bank A, however, faces the problem of when to send the
payment request. This decision depends on whether bank A has sufficient
funds in its reserve or clearing account to cover the transfer, when it
is expecting the arrival of incoming funds, and whether it should save
the account balance for more urgent payment requests. The timing
decision of every bank using the payment system may collectively slow
down the speed of funds transfers or may even trigger gridlock of the
whole system (in the case of two banks, this is a situation where bank A
is waiting for bank B's payment and bank B is waiting for bank
A's payment, so neither can pay the other). The concern for whether
there will be a sufficient account balance to cover outgoing payments
demand may raise the level of precautionary reserves that each ban k
holds (above reserve requirements), given the uncertain demand for
payment. Therefore, the need for settlement liquidity in real time may
be very costly not just for the funds-sending bank, but for the payment
system as a whole.
Under an NS system with end-of-business-day settlement, the
funds-sending bank A does not have the above concerns. The payment is
settled only at the end of the day, at which time, it would have
received all of the day's incoming funds, as well as having made
all the outgoing transfers. It pays bank B and other banks the net
amount it owes at the closing of the business day. In other words, for
this particular transfer, bank A receives an implicit extension of $10
million interest-free intraday credit from bank B between the time the
transfer is initiated and the time the net balance owed to bank B is
paid. The end-of-day payment implies that sending banks, including bank
A, have no incentive to delay sending the payment messages if there are
no other payment-system-imposed constraints. Hence, there should be no
costly delays or gridlock. Also, since each bank needs to pay only the
net amount at the end of a day, which usually is a lot smaller than the
value of total outgoing payments the bank has to make du ring the day,
it needs to hold lower reserves or clearing balances as payment
liquidity than under an RTGS system. On the other hand, bank B, the
receiving bank, may face significant credit risk. If bank A fails during
the day and can not make the payment at the end of the day, bank B may
have to bear at least part of the loss, and, moreover, bank A's
inability to settle may trigger the unwinding of the whole day's
payments. The potential spillover of this settlement failure to other
payment systems and financial markets, often termed systemic risk, is
considered very costly.
From the above discussion, we understand that the main difficulty
for an RTGS system is the provision of costly settlement liquidity in
real time, while the difficulty for an NS system is the potential credit
risk. For commercial banks and financial institutions, the everyday
needs of settlement liquidity outweigh the risk of settlement failure,
which is a possibility though it rarely happens in practice. Hence,
private payment arrangements are often NS systems. [5] On the other
hand, the increasingly integrated international economy, including
financial markets and payment systems, intensifies the concern of many
central banks over potential systemic risk. The recent technological
advances in real-time monitoring and processing of financial
transactions also make the implementation of RTGS systems easier. These
factors facilitate the recent movement toward RTGS as the favored
large-value payment system of central banks in many countries. [6]
To ease the shortage of settlement liquidity under an RTGS system,
many central banks provide intraday liquidity with certain restrictions.
That is, instead of waiting for the arrival of incoming funds to cover
outgoing payments, a sending bank without a sufficient account balance
can make a payment by borrowing from the central bank during the day and
paying it back before the end of the day. This arrangement effectively
turns an RTGS system into a netting-with-the-central-bank system. This
is because the real-time settlement of a funds transfer using intraday
credit is an initial settlement between the central bank and the
receiving bank (after which the sending bank's debt to the
receiving bank is owed to the central bank), followed by another
settlement between the sending bank and the central bank at a later
time, possibly with the sending bank's incoming funds or a net
payment at the end of the day.
Intraday-credit policy
The extension of intraday credit by the central bank effectively
transfers the credit risk from the receiving bank to the central bank.
To reduce the potential credit risk posed to the central bank by the
allowance of intraday credit, some form of explicit measure to control
the use of intraday credit is often adopted, in addition to an
intensified effort to monitor and control banks' financial
situation and risk management. These policies include
1) the imposition of a quantitative limit (or "cap") on
the amount of intraday credit that each bank can receive at any moment
of a day,
2) charging an interest rate (though not necessarily the market
rate) to discourage the improper usage of intraday credit, and
3) the requirement of collateral or intraday repos [7] to fully or
partially back the amount of credit extended.
All three measures impose costs on the use of intraday credit. The
potential punishment for violation of the cap (if violation is allowed)
or the inability to borrow from the central bank above the cap (when
violation is not allowed) are costly to banks. The interest charge is an
explicit proportional cost for the usage of intraday credit. Collateral
or repos carry an opportunity cost if the amount of qualifying safe
assets required for adequate settlement liquidity is more than the
amount a bank would hold without the requirement.
Different central banks adopt different intraday-credit policies
for their RTGS systems. The TARGET system, which is a collection of
inter-connected domestic RTGS systems of European Monetary Union (EMU)
member countries that settle cross-border payments denominated in euros,
mandates that each member central bank provides interest-free intraday
credit on a fully collateralized basis. Switzerland, as a non-EMU
member, had an extreme form of intraday-credit policy for its interbank
funds transfer system, Swiss Interbank Clearing (SIC): no intraday
provision of settlement liquidity by its central bank under any
condition. [8] As a substitute, there is a very limited intraday money
market for special time-critical payments in connection with securities
transactions (BIS, 1997). Only in October 1999, the Swiss National Bank started to allow intraday repos-backed interest-free overdrafts in an
effort to make its payment system more compatible with the EMU
countries. In the U.S., Fedwire adopts the other two risk- management
measures, the intraday overdraft cap and the interest charge.
The experience of Fedwire
The Federal Reserve Banks used to have a quite liberal
intraday-credit policy, with almost no restriction on the use of
intraday credit by depository institutions. In 1986, the Federal Reserve
moved toward a more cautious approach in its extension of intraday
credit. It began by imposing a quantitative limit on the total amount of
intraday credit each depository institution could incur for funds
transfer over Fedwire and other private large-value payment systems
(such as CHIPS). This cross-system limit was replaced by net debit caps
on Fedwire alone in 1991 (CHIPS maintains its own net debit caps
established by its participants, separate from those on Fedwire).
Currently, each depository institution is subject to two capital-based
net debit caps for overdrafts related to funds transfer and book-entry
securities transfer: [9] a daily cap that limits the amount of intraday
overdrafts the institution can incur at any moment in its Federal
Reserve account and a two-week cap that the average overdraft by the
inst itution over a two-week period should not exceed. Studies show that
although the initial imposition of the net debit caps on
funds-transfer-related overdraft may have restricted the growth of
overdrafts (Richards, 1995) and forced a few heavy users of daylight
overdrafts to improve their liquidity management, the overall effect of
imposing caps on intraday credit has not been significant (Hancock and
Wilcox, 1996).
In 1994, in an effort to intensify its control of intraday credits,
the Federal Reserve imposed an explicit minute-by-minute interest charge
of 24 basis points (annual rate) on the average daylight overdraft each
institution incurred during a business day in addition to the net debit
caps. [10] The rate was raised to 36 basis points in 1995. This interest
charge is levied with deductibles. For ten hours each day, overdrafts
valued at 10 percent of an institution's risk-based capital are
exempted from the charge. In addition, any two-week total charge less
than $25 is waived. Because of these deductibles, many institutions do
not pay anything under the new policy. In fact, using data on aggregate
fees collected and average overdrafts, the imputed effective average
(not marginal) annual rate was only around 8 basis points before the
raise in April 1995 and around 11 basis point after that. In 1999, the
average per minute overdraft on Fedwire was on the magnitude of $50
billion, while the aggregate fee collecte d over a two-week period was
only around $1 million.
Despite the low fee and the deductibles, the impact of the initial
interest charge was significant, although the subsequent rate increase
had no obvious effect. During the six months immediately following the
imposition of the fee, both intraday peak and average overdrafts
declined by about 40 percent, with security-related overdrafts
decreasing more (45 percent) than the funds-related overdrafts (25
percent). According to Richards (1995), the reduction in intraday
overdraft is driven by the reduction of large overdrafts: More than 90
percent of the drop in intraday overdraft comes from the top six
overdrafting institutions. Figure 1 shows the Fedwire intraday peak
overdraft and average overdraft for both funds transfer and book-entry
security accounts from October 1993 onward. [11]
Despite the significant impact of the interest charge on
institutions' overdraft behavior, it has little effect on the
amount of transactions processed over Fedwire. Figure 2 shows the total
value of transactions made on both the funds transfer and book-entry
security accounts. In other words, the imposition of the fee at its
current level does not discourage transfer activities over Fedwire. It
affects only the timing of the transfers as institutions try to reduce
the amount of overdrafts. This is evident from the apparent attempts by
banks to finance a higher proportion of outgoing payments with incoming
funds and utilize account balances more efficiently by delaying sending
payment orders (Richards, 1995). McAndrews and Rajan (2000) find
increased coordination among participating banks and conjecture that
they synchronize payment activities through establishing regular times
for funds transfers.
In summary, there are two basic models of intraday-credit policy
for an RTGS system in use: the European model that allows interest-free
intraday credit on a full collateral backed basis and the U.S. model
with an intraday-overdraft cap and explicit intraday-credit pricing.
Both models directly limit the central bank's exposure to credit
risk due to the provision of intraday credit. Questions remain as to
whether either model or any combination of the three measures outlined
earlier or other measures serve the central bank's objective of
promoting an efficient payment system while containing risk.
Modeling payment systems
Now that we understand how payment systems work, we can study the
optimal design of a payment system by modeling the fundamental conflict
of liquidity versus risk in an environment that incorporates most of the
essential features of a modem payment problem. More specifically, a
payment system model should satisfy the following criteria. First, it
should model the underlying transaction of goods or financial assets for
which payment has to be made in a different time (that is, a debt has to
be issued and settled at different times). The choice of the payment
system used to settle the payments matters, in the sense that it affects
the underlying resources allocation. Second, there should be a
distinction between consumption/investment debt and settlement debt if
both are modeled. The former is created when the underlying trade of
goods or assets is conducted, and the latter is generated when
settlement liquidity is borrowed in order to settle the associated
consumption/investment debt. This distinction will en able one to study
the property of settlement debt independently of the underlying
consumption/investment debt. Third, the model should have an
endogenously generated settlement liquidity shortage, possibly derived
from a payment structure in which settlements of different parties are
interdependent and may even induce settlement gridlock. The shortage of
liquidity makes borrowing and lending intraday settlement liquidity
necessary. Last, the model should include the risk component: the
possibility of settlement failure that could be triggered by genuine
bank failure (for example, investment failure) or by moral hazard induced by the intraday-credit policy (for example, overuse of intraday
credit or change in portfolio choice).
These four criteria are tall orders to fill. A substantial amount
of theoretical research focuses either on costly settlement liquidity or
on credit risk, rarely both. Most models ignore the reality that the
demand for settlement liquidity is a derived demand for underlying trade
of goods and financial assets (criteria 1 and 2). Despite their
problems, these studies provide significant insights into the workings
of different payment systems and intraday-credit policies. I survey this
body of literature before discussing a model that satisfies the four
criteria and the insights it provides.
Some theoretical arguments
It is generally argued that either collateral or a debit cap is
required to limit the central bank's exposure to credit risk. The
debate often centers on whether settlement liquidity should be allocated
through a market-like mechanism, such as price. A generic argument for
market allocation of settlement liquidity postulates that settlement
liquidity is a resource, and by standard economic theory, efficient
allocation of any resource can be achieved through a market mechanism
(see Mengle et al., 1987, and Evanoff, 1988). The demand for intraday
credit is assumed to derive from the fundamental difficulty of
synchronizing payment flows; hence, having access to intraday credit
would reduce settlement cost (such as excess holdings of reserve
balances for settlement and the need for potentially costly
precise-timing contracting). On the supply side, it is argued that the
providers of settlement liquidity should be compensated for its cost,
which includes the pure time cost of funds and the compensation for
risk. The value of settlement liquidity to both sides of the market
gives rise to the standard demand and supply and, hence, market clearing
price. This argument is plausible heuristically. The challenge is to
model explicitly the elements that determine the demand and supply for
settlement liquidity and to evaluate the argument in a rigorous way.
Some of the following arguments are derived from such explicit modeling.
[12]
1. Charging a nominal overnight rate on intraday overdraft corrects
the distortion created by the non-interest-bearing reserve requirement.
This theory derives the value of intraday-credit pricing from the
existence of another distortionary policy. Lacker (1997) argues that the
central bank's standard policy requiring depository institutions to
maintain a reserve balance with no interest paid is, in fact, an
inflation tax on reserve balances. In a model where banks face a
positive overnight interest rate but a zero intraday interest rate, the
wedge between the two interest rates reinforces the distortionary
reserve requirement. This is because there is no need for banks to hold
overnight balances for the next day's payment needs given that they
can borrow at zero interest rate (assuming there is no
intraday-borrowing constraint). The requirement to hold a reserve
balance overnight, and hence the foregone overnight interest on it,
distorts banks' intertemporal resource allocation. If intraday
liquidity is als o priced at the overnight rate, then banks need to make
provision for payment liquidity by either holding an overnight account
balance with the opportunity cost of the interest rate or borrowing
intraday at the same rate. For banks whose payment liquidity needs are
at least as large as their reserve requirements, holding overnight
balances equal to or above the requirements (which they are indifferent
from borrowing intraday) renders the distortionary reserve requirement
non-binding. For banks whose payment liquidity demand is smaller than
the reserve requirement, the distortion created by the
non-interest-bearing reserve requirement cannot be completely
eliminated. However, it is not clear, due to the potential general
equilibrium effect, that banks (even those with large payment liquidity
needs) would prefer to pay the marginal cost of financing payment
liquidity and not suffer the distortion brought about by the reserve
requirements or vice versa.
2. Costly monitoring of borrowing banks is necessary, and requires
compensation. Rochet and Tirole (1996) focus on the risk component of
the cost to the supplier of intraday liquidity, and argue that the
primary problem of a payment system is solvency, not liquidity. They
speculate that in a world where banks were perfectly safe, a bank could
get liquidity instantaneously since an intraday market would emerge if
the cost of precise-time contracting was too high. Given that banks are
not perfectly safe, the solvency of a borrowing bank requires monitoring
by its lender. Hence, intraday lending should be costly, not free.
Although Rochet and Tirole do not provide a framework for measuring the
cost of monitoring, they do argue that a quantitative cap or a
reasonable level of collateral requirement may be a better means to
control the overuse of intraday credit than pricing. They argue that
pricing may induce moral hazard, by increasing borrowers' failure
rate, or adverse selection, by eliminating banks with low nonobservable
risk and serving those with high nonobservable risk and, hence, a higher
probability of failure.
3. Free intraday liquidity may encourage banks' risk-taking
behavior. Kahn and Roberds (1999b) show that under an NS system in which
intraday liquidity is free, banks may choose a more risky asset portfolio than they would under an RTGS system without the provision of
intraday liquidity. This is because in an environment where each bank
exists for only one period, say one day (hence, there is no need to
consider the effect of its action in the long run), it is optimal to
default (not settle) net payment at the end of the day. By doing so,
losses from risky investment are shifted to other participants of the NS
system (or to the central bank under an RTGS system with the central
bank providing free intraday liquidity). Under an RTGS system without
the provision of intraday liquidity, payment orders have to be settled
with reserves or liquidation of safe assets as they are realized
throughout the day. No strategic default at the end of a day is
possible. In such an environment, the remedy for liquidity shortag e is
not charging interest on the net debit position, which would give more
incentive for default, but imposing net debit caps or requiring
collateral. The latter also dominates RTGS without liquidity provision
given that the safe assets do not have to be liquidated as collateral.
4. The extension of free intraday credit eliminates inefficiency
brought about by intraday liquidity constraints. It is well understood
that the creation of inside money (debt) can sometimes improve
intertemporal resource reallocation when agents face liquidity
constraints with outside money alone. Kahn and Roberds (1999a)
reinterpret consumption as funds transfer and payment with debt
securities as payment with the central bank's intraday credit. In
their model, the free extension of the right amount of intraday
liquidity can eliminate the liquidity shortage and restore the
first-best consumption allocation (that is, the allocation achievable
when there is no liquidity constraint), while charging interest on
intraday credit is distortionary. Furthermore, some combination of
inflation and partial collateral requirements can also achieve the
first-best consumption allocation.
5. The provision of free intraday liquidity reduces the possibility
of holding a "sterile" reserve. This argument again relies on
the central bank's usual practice of a zero-interest reserve
requirement, making banks' above reserve-requirement balances
"sterile." Kahn and Roberds (1999b) model the arrival of
payment orders for a bank as completely stochastic; facing this flow,
banks make beginning-of-the-day reserve and portfolio decisions. Under
an RTGS system without the provision of intraday liquidity, a bank makes
a payment either with its reserve balance or by liquidating asset
holdings at a cost. The random nature of the payment flow implies that a
bank may end up with a positive balance. Under an NS system (or an RTGS
system with free intraday credit), the expected reserve is usually
smaller than under an RTGS system, since only the end-of-day net
credit/debit positions, which are often smaller than gross payments,
need to be settled. Therefore, banks face a smaller chance of holding
"sterile" reserve s at the end of the day. Lacker (1997) makes
a similar point.
6. Costly intraday liquidity may induce banks to delay sending
payment orders, which generates a negative externality. Angelini (1998)
introduces an exogenous cost structure for delaying payments in a model
where payments among banks are interdependent. Given that intraday
credit is costly (either because of pricing or collateral requirements),
while making a payment sending/withholding decision, a bank faces the
tradeoff between sending the payment order promptly by borrowing costly
intraday credit or delaying the payment and suffering the delay cost. In
such an environment, if banks cooperate to maximize joint profit, there
will be no delay (no payment order is blocked by other banks'
delayed payment). In a non-cooperative equilibrium, however, a bank will
delay a payment order to reduce its expected intraday-over-draft cost
and wait for the incoming funds to arrive. By doing so, it transfers the
intraday-credit cost to the payment-receiving bank. The negative
externality generated by this delay is a dead- weight loss to the
payment system, and it cannot be eliminated by the existence of the
intraday money market because liquidity on the intraday market will also
be costly. Kobayakawa (1997), in a similar setup, shows that while
intraday-credit pricing induces delay, collateralized intraday credit
does not, although it imposes other costs on banks. Humphrey (1989), on
the other hand, argues that delays in sending less time-critical
payments will improve reserve efficiency. As I mentioned in the
discussion of Fedwire's intraday-credit policy, there is evidence
both of banks delaying sending outgoing payments and of banks
cooperating in making payments.
Among the above six arguments, only the first one supports
market-based intraday liquidity pricing; and the argument holds only in
conjunction with the existence of the distortionary non-interest-bearing
reserve requirement. When credit risk is under consideration, argument 2
supports monitoring-cost based pricing, and 3 supports net debit caps
and collateralization to control banks' risk-taking behavior. For a
pure liquidity shortage concern, the last three theories support the
provision of free intraday credit.
A model without settlement risk
Next, I discuss a version of a payment system model that fits the
bill of the proposed theoretical framework, introduced by Freeman
(1996). The Freeman model is intended to study the central bank's
means of conducting monetary policy, via open market operations and the
discount window, in an economy with a liquidity shortage. When applied
to a large-value payment system that lacks intraday liquidity, the model
offers different insights about the provision of intraday credit. To
separate the problems of liquidity shortage and settlement risk, I first
discuss a version of the model that only has a shortage of settlement
liquidity; then I explore the effect of introducing credit risk. In the
appendix, I solve a parametric version of the model without settlement
risk.
The model is a standard overlapping generation model with added
features to satisfy the first three criteria (that is, modeling the
underlying transaction of real resources, distinguishing real debt and
settlement debt, and incorporating a settlement liquidity shortage).
[13] There are a large number of two-period-lived agents, one generation
born in each period. Each generation has an equal number of creditors
and debtors. They are so named to anticipate the roles they will play in
their lifetime. There are two nonstorable goods, the C-good and the
D-good, endowed to the young generation each period. At the beginning of
a period, a young creditor receives one unit of the C-good, and a young
debtor receives one unit of the D-good. In addition, the initial old
creditors, who live only one period, are endowed with [m.sub.0] units of
money per person. Debtors consume both goods only when young, while
creditors prefer to consume the C-good when young and the D-good when
old. All agents are risk averse.
This preference and endowment pattern leads to both
intra-generation and inter-generation trades. More specifically, at any
date, young debtors would want to purchase some C-good from young
creditors, and old creditors would like to consume some of young
debtors' endowment, the D-good. Suppose the former trade
(intra-generation) occurs in the morning and the latter
(inter-generation) takes place in the afternoon. When young debtors meet
young creditors at the C-good market in the morning, they have no money,
and have only their endowment, which the young creditors do not consume.
The only way the two parties can trade is if young creditors accept
young debtors' personal IOUs (a promise to pay a certain amount of
fiat money tomorrow for the goods purchased today) as payment for goods.
[14] To make the model more like a payment problem, given that there are
an equal number of ex ante identical debtors and creditors, I assume
that the debt for C-good transaction is bilateral, that is, each
creditor holds one de btor's IOU after the trade. [15] Assume that
all agents are able to issue nonfalsifiable, verifiable personal IOUs.
Debtors pay back their creditors with money next morning in a central
clearing market. By then, they should have obtained the fiat money
necessary to settle their debts. Assume the central clearing market is
operated by an infinitely lived central bank that has the authority to
issue fiat money [16] and to enforce the settlement of debt contracts in
the market. In the afternoon, old creditors use the money they received
in the morning (debt payment) to purchase the D-good from young debtors
at the D-good market.
To generate a positive, overnight nominal interest rate, suppose
that each young debtor receives a lump-sum transfer of fiat money at the
end of a day. The money growth is exogenous, and the growth rate is i
[greater than] 0. At the end of a day, all fiat money will be in the
hands of young debtors, which they use to pay their debt next morning.
The timing of different markets and the trading flows within and across
generations are illustrated in figure 3.
Over the course of a lifetime, a creditor who wants to consume when
old saves by selling a portion of her nonstorable endowments in exchange
for debt when young and settles the debt for money, with which she
purchases her old age consumption. A young debtor, on the other hand,
first buys goods with personal IOUs, and then sells his endowment for
money. He is alive in the second period of his life solely for the
purpose of repaying his debt. Given that all debtors (creditors) are
risk averse and ex ante identical, economic efficiency requires that all
debtors (creditors) of each generation consume the same amount of their
desired consumption goods. [17]
Without any settlement problem, with standard preferences
(increasing and concave utility function), young and old agents of all
generations will consume a constant portion of their desired goods,
respectively. The prices of both goods grow at rate i, and the overnight
nominal interest rate on the debt is also i. This outcome is efficient.
[18] I call it equilibrium (*).
To satisfy the third criterion (incorporating a shortage of
settlement liquidity), I introduce a settlement problem at the central
clearing market every morning. Suppose that the payment flows are not
fully synchronized. When the clearing market opens, all creditors
arrive, but only a fraction, say [lambda] [epsilon] 0[0,l], of debtors
arrive. Before the remaining 1 - [lambda] fraction of the debtors
arrive, 1 - [alpha] fraction of old creditors have to leave, [alpha]
[epsilon] [0,1]. For an individual agent, the timing of his or her
arrival and departure (early or late) is completely random and is
realized only before the settlement. An old creditor may fall into one
of three categories:
X: the debt she holds is settled at par because
[X.sub.1]: she leaves early and her debtor arrives early,
[X.sub.2]: she leaves late and her debtor arrives late,
Y: she cannot settle directly with her debtor because she leaves
early and her debtor arrives late, or
Z: she leaves late but her debt is settled directly with her
early-arriving debtor.
The probabilities associated with categories X, Y, and Z are
[alpha] + [lambda] - 2[alpha][lambda], (1 - [lambda])(1 - [alpha]), and
[alpha][lambda], respectively.
The latter two groups of creditors can trade since group Y have
unredeemed IOUs and have to leave early, while group Z receive their
payment money and can wait for more debtors to arrive. Depending on
whether they exchange money for debt, group Z can be divided into two
subgroups: they either
[Z.sub.1]: do not exchange repayment money for debt, or
[Z.sub.2]: purchase debt with repayment money.
Figure 4 illustrates the timing and trading patterns among
different groups of debtors and creditors on the clearing market.
Whether group Y creditors will be repaid in full for the debt they
accepted in the previous period depends on the relative sizes of groups
Y and Z. If there are more agents in group Z than in group Y,
[alpha][lambda] [greater than or equal to] (1 - [lambda])(1 - [alpha])
(or equivalently, the amount of debt held by early-leaving creditors is
smaller than the amount of money brought in by early-arriving debtors, 1
- [alpha] [less than or equal to] [lambda]), then a portion of the
creditors in group Z, group [Z.sub.2], purchase unredeemed debt from
those in group Y at par (since the demand for debt is greater than the
supply) and settle the purchased IOUs with late-arriving debtors. In
this case, the asynchronization of payment flows does not create any
problem. All creditors are repaid in full, and the consumption
allocation is the same as in equilibrium (*).
It is also possible that there are fewer agents in group Z than in
group Y, [alpha][lambda] [less than] (1 - [lambda])(1 - [alpha]) (or
equivalently, there is more debt than money available for settlement, 1
- [alpha] [greater than] [lambda]). In this case, all creditors in group
Z purchase unsettled debt from group Y creditors at a discount (that is,
[Z.sub.2] = Z), each obtains more debt than her debt holdings before the
settlement, and the repurchased debts are settled when the late-arriving
debtors arrive. The amount discounted depends on how much smaller group
Z is relative to group Y in other words, the severity of the settlement
liquidity shortage. Because the debt is discounted, group Y creditors
receive less money and group Z creditors receive more money than they
were originally promised. Group X creditors are unaffected since their
debts are settled at par. The uneven distribution of fiat money among
old creditors leads to an uneven allocation of consumption goods.
Relative to old creditors in equ ilibrium (*), group Y old creditors
consume less, group Z consume more, and group X consume the same. Such
an outcome is inefficient; group Z creditors benefit at the expense of
group Y, despite being ex ante the same.
The inefficiency can be easily corrected if the central bank, which
runs the clearing market, buys up the unredeemed debt at par with newly
issued money directly from old creditors in group Y and then destroys
the fiat money turned in by late-arriving debtors for repaying their
debt. By doing so, the central bank temporarily increases the amount of
fiat money in the economy intraday, but does not change the aggregate
money supply overnight. Hence, the action does not alter the inflation
path on both the C-good and the D-good market. [19] Since all creditors
are able to redeem their debts at par, the consumption allocation is the
same as in equilibrium (*).
The trading of debt between early-leaving and late-leaving
creditors at the central clearing market can be interpreted as the
operation of a private inter-bank market trading reserves in a
large-value payment system. Banks that receive payments early (group Z)
extend credit to the banks that cannot pay early (late-arriving
debtors), so that banks in urgent need of funds (group Y) can be paid in
time. This lending transforms an overnight consumption debt (from group
Y creditors to late-arriving debtors) into an intraday settlement debt
(from group Z creditors to late-arriving debtors), which is settled
later during the day. When debt is traded at par, the intraday lenders
(group Z creditors) do not gain anything, hence the lending is free.
However, when debt is traded at a discount, the additional fiat money
obtained by group Z creditors can be viewed as an interest payment for
intraday lending. [20] The results above suggest that economic
efficiency requires free intraday settlement lending, that is, an
intraday interest rate of zero. The central bank's temporary
injection of settlement liquidity at no cost to settlement parties
accomplishes this goal.
Potentially, banks that receive incoming funds early can lend to
banks in urgent need of settlement liquidity for a few hours or minutes
during the day. The analysis suggests that the shortage of settlement
liquidity under an RTGS system may not be completely resolved by the
development of such a private intraday lending market. Given that there
is very little intraday consumption or investment opportunity, [21] the
settlement liquidity should be provided at zero interest rate. When
private borrowing and lending of reserve balances is not able to achieve
this objective, the central bank, which is the sole issuer of settlement
money (base money), should step in and provide the needed liquidity free
of interest. Fedwire may be such a case; figure 1 shows that
Fedwire's peak intraday overdraft is above the total reserve
balance and, for the last three years, even the average intraday
overdraft has exceeded the reserve balance. That is, had a private
intraday market substituted for the Federal Reserve's role of
intraday liquidity provision, ceteris paribus, the outcome would be
inefficient.
Introducing credit risk
In the model discussed above, there is no uncertainty regarding
whether a debtor will repay his debt at full value; the only question is
when he will arrive at the clearing market. Under such a setup, the
optimal intraday-credit policy is to provide settlement liquidity free
of charge. An obvious question is what if there is a possibility that a
debtor does not repay his debt.
To answer this question, Freeman (1999) assumes that with some
probability [theta], a fixed fraction of debtors default on their debt
and spend the repayment money on the D-good when old, [theta] [epsilon]
[0,1]. [22] The uncertainty of whether some debtors will default is
resolved only after the late-arriving debtors show up at the clearing
market, not before. Hence, the default risk is borne solely by the
late-leaving creditor. In such an environment, Freeman shows that if the
central bank is willing to tolerate price fluctuation, the free
provision of intraday liquidity required to settle all debts at face
value is still optimal. The reason, however, is for optimal risk
sharing. For simplicity, I discuss the intuition of this result in the
original Freeman model without any modifications (such as the exogenous
money growth I imposed above). [23]
As I stated earlier, economic efficiency in this model environment
requires that the allocation minimizes agents' ex post consumption
difference, in particular, that of the creditors since they are the ones
who suffer from the problem caused by asynchronized payment flows as
well as the default risk. If the central bank does not help to settle
late-arriving debtors' and defaulters' debt, creditors are
divided into four groups (compared with three when there is no aggregate
default risk) when default occurs:
a) creditors who are repaid at full value (these include both
early-leaving and late-leaving creditors whose debtors do not default),
b) early-leaving creditors who have to sell their unredeemed debt
to late-leaving creditors who have been repaid at a discount (to reflect
the potential default risk),
c) late-leaving creditors who purchase debt from early-leaving
creditors and are able to redeem the debt later, and
d) late-leaving creditors whose debt holdings are not redeemed
because of default.
Among these four groups of agents, group c receive the most amount
of money, hence the highest consumption; they are followed by groups a
and b; and group d creditors consume nothing when old.
This allocation can easily be improved. One solution, though not
the only one, is to have the central bank redeem all creditors'
unpaid debt at par, including both the unsettled debt of early-leaving
creditors and the defaulted debt of late-leaving creditors, and then
take out an equal amount of fiat money repaid by debtors whenever
possible. By doing so, all creditors receive exactly their promised
payments in fiat money. When default actually occurs, the settlement
liquidity injected can not be completely taken out, and hence, the goods
price will inflate. But such inflation is felt by all creditors equally.
When default does not take place, the central bank's temporary
injection of liquidity is taken out completely by the end of a day, and
goods market prices are not affected. The price volatility induced by
default of payments acts as an insurance mechanism for risk-averse
creditors; it transforms credit risk borne by late-leaving creditors
alone to inflation risk borne by all creditors. Therefore, the r
esulting allocation is preferable to having a constant price but a
bigger fluctuation in consumption.
The model assumes that the timing of agents' arrival and
departure as well as whether debtors default are exogenous, rather than
endogenously chosen by agents. Therefore, the model is not suited to
studying the potential moral hazard problem induced by free or low-cost
provision of intraday settlement liquidity and the possible policies to
offset it. If such decisions are explicitly modeled, it is quite
possible that the result may be different. For example, such a model may
support monitoring-cost-based pricing that differentiates and punishes
agents who use intraday liquidity imprudently, as argued by Rochet and
Tirole (1996). However, the intuition provided by the simplified model
presented here should survive. That is, the optimal design of
intraday-credit policy for a payment system has to take into
consideration its distributional effect on all members of the system, as
well as its effectiveness in reducing risk.
Conclusion
The simple model presented here takes into account the basic
elements of the four criteria I proposed earlier. It models the
underlying goods transaction so that whether the central bank provides
intraday liquidity affects the consumption allocation. The model yields
the result that economic efficiency requires consumption debt to be
priced at a positive interest rate while payment debt should be priced
at zero interest rate. The assumed payment flows generate a shortage of
settlement liquidity so that the central bank's provision of
liquidity improves welfare. Finally, the model assumes default risk such
that not all payments can be settled.
Through the analysis of the model, I argue that settlement debt is
very different from consumption/investment debt; while the latter
facilitates the allocation of real resources across time, the former
exists only for settling the underlying intertemporal transaction.
Hence, consumption/investment debt should be appropriately priced to
give proper incentives for the efficient allocation of real resources,
while the cost of settlement debt should be minimized so that it does
not distort the underlying goods/assets transaction. The temporary
injection of free intraday liquidity by the central bank helps to
achieve this goal. The provision of intraday settlement liquidity
through a private intraday money market in central bank funds may be too
costly, in particular when total funds in reserve and clearing accounts
are in short supply. Furthermore, even with potential aggregate default
risk, the provision of free intraday liquidity by the central bank may
be the best way to ensure banks do not bear the brunt of the risk
disproportionately.
The model does not meet the proposed standards completely because
the introduction of the liquidity problem and settlement risk is rather
mechanical. A richer setup where the twin problems are induced by
agents' action would allow us to study other major payment system
problems, such as delaying payments and the associated gridlock,
banks' endogenous risk-taking decisions, and potential moral
hazard. Further research efforts are needed to enhance our understanding
of the role of intraday liquidity and its connection to the conduct of
monetary policy (for example, inflation) and other central bank policies
(such as zero-interest reserve requirements).
Ruilin Zhou is a senior economist at the Federal Reserve Bank of
Chicago. The author thanks Jeff Lacker (who suggested the topic), Ed
Green, David Marshall, Jamie McAndrews, and Will Roberds for their
generous help in clarifying issues and Liqian Ren for technical
assistance.
NOTES
(1.) One unsatisfactory feature of the Freeman model is that the
liquidity shortage is generated from the exogenously imposed payment
flows, rather than as an outcome of agents' endogenous payment
decision.
(2.) Without money growth, the reinterpretation of Freeman's
(1996) result suggests that both the intraday and the overnight interest
rate should be zero.
(3.) This is another unsatisfactory feature of the model--default
on payments is exogenously imposed rather than the agents' choice.
(4.) The conventional settlement lag for foreign exchange
transactions is even longer--two days rather than one.
(5.) Japan's BOJ-NET offers the choice of both designated-time
NS and RTGS arrangements for each transaction, although the share of
transactions settled by RTGS is very small. According to BIS (1997), the
share of transactions settled by RTGS was 1.2 percent of total in terms
of number and 0.1 percent in terms of value in 1995.
(6.) Britian's large-value payment system, CHAPS, previously
operated under an NS arrangement and converted to an RTGS system in
April 1996. The European Monetary Union chooses RTGS for its large-value
funds transfer system, TARGET (Trans-European Automated Real-Time Gross
Settlement Express Transfer), which is currently in the process of
implementation. The only major developed country that has chosen to
adopt an NS system as its main large-value payment system is Canada. The
LVTS, debuted in 1999, is a privately owned hybrid system that offers
assurance of settlement in real time (guaranteed by the Bank of Canada),
although the actual settlement occurs at the end of a business day. See
BIS (1997).
(7.) A sale of securities combined with a forward (same-day)
repurchase.
(8.) When sufficient funds are not available in sending
parties' SIC accounts, payment orders are held in a central queue
and processed in a first-in-first-out (FIFO) basis once the covering
funds are received. See the Internet at
www.snb.ch/e/snb/interbank/inter.html.
(9.) However, a bank can increase its capacity of overdraft for
security-transfer-related activities by pledging collateral.
(10.) The annual rate assumes 360 days a year and 24 hours a day.
The interest charge is in addition to the fixed transaction fee
(independent of the size of the transaction) that has always been in
place.
(11.) Intraday peak and average overdrafts for funds transfer alone
show a similar pattern.
(12.) I have argued earlier that an RTGS system with central bank
provision of intraday credit can be viewed as a
netting-with-central-bank system, although with some intraday-credit
measures, settlement liquidity may be more costly and proportional to
the amount of usage relative to a standard NS system. (NS) systems such
as CHIPS usually also impose net debit caps and require collateral,
although at a lower level. The collateral is intended for potential
settlement failure as part of the loss-sharing agreement among
participants.) Nevertheless, some arguments for an NS system can be used
to argue for a low-cost, nonmarket provision of intraday liquidity with
an RTGS system.
(13.) The environment introduced here is similar to Green (1997), a
variant of the Freeman model that preserves the spatial separation of
markets, but without assuming an island economy structure as in Freeman
(1996).
(14.) This setup is analogous to the large-value payment problem
that a goods transaction and its payment occur at different times.
(15.) Freeman (1996) assumes that each creditor holds a diversified
portfolio of debt issued by different debtors. This assumption affects
how a creditor's budget constraint is written, as shown in the
appendix.
(16.) I assume that the only means to settle debt is fiat money,
which a private clearinghouse cannot issue.
(17.) This is the solution to a social planner's problem that
maximizes a weighted sum of utilities of the debtors and creditors in
each generation.
(18.) The exogenously imposed inflation is distortionary.
Equilibrium (*) is the second best given the existence of inflation.
(19.) If the central bank were to purchase debt below par, it would
thereby withdraw money from the economy. (The difference between par and
the purchase price, times the quantity of debt purchased, would be
withdrawn from the economy at each date.) I am assuming that in such a
case, injection of new money into the economy would increase by this
withdrawn amount, so that the net growth rate of aggregate money stock
entering the goods market remains at i.
(20.) Although the interest is paid by group Y creditors, rather
than the presumed intraday-credit borrowers, the late-arriving debtor.
This mismatch of the interpretation of the model and reality arises
because, for simplicity, I assume the payment flows are exogenous,
whereas in practice, funds transfers are initiated by funds-sending
banks (debtors) in most large-value payment systems.
(21.) The only industrialized countries with some form of intraday
money markets are Japan and Switzerland (prior to 2000), and they exist
solely to serve the liquidity needs of settling payments since these
countries' central banks do not provide any form of intraday
settlement lending.
(22.) The debtors' preference has to be changed; in addition
to consuming both goods when young, they now also consume the D-good
when old. This assumption ensures that the defaulters' money is not
withdrawn from the goods markets.
(23.) For a detailed mathematical derivation of the result, see
Freeman (1999).
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APPENDIX
A parametric model without settlement risk
I show a parametric version of the model without the provision of
settlement liquidity by the central bank (the model presented in the
section, A model without settlement risk). Since all creditors are
identical ex ante and all debtors are identical ex ante, I look for a
symmetric (all creditors act the same and all debtors act the same),
competitive (agents on both goods markets and debt-resale markets are
price-takers) equilibrium.
Let [P.sub.Ct] and [P.sub.Dt] denote the date-t prices for C-good
and D-good, respectively, and let [R.sub.t] be the date-t nominal
interest rate on consumption debt.
Consider a generation-t debtor first t [greater than or equal to]
1. At date t, suppose that a young debtor purchases [C.sub.dt] units of
C-good, pays with personal debt valued at [h.sub.t] dollars, and sells 1
- [D.sub.dt] units of his endowment D-good to old creditors in exchange
for [m.sub.t-1] dollars. At the end of the day, the debtor consumes his
purchase and the remaining [D.sub.dt] units of his endowment, which
yield utility log([C.sub.dt]) + log([D.sub.dt]), and receives a lump-sum
transfer [m'.sub.t] units of money. Next morning, the debtor visits
the central clearing market, where he pays back the debt and interest
[R.sub.t][h.sub.t] dollars in full with the money obtained at date t,
[m.sub.t-1] + [m'.sub.t] regardless of whether he arrives early or
late. The debtor chooses his consumption bundle ([C.sub.dt],
[D.sub.dt],) subject to his budget constraints to maximize his expected
utility. That is,
1) max log([C.sup.dt]) + log([D.sub.dt])
2) such that: [P.sub.Ct][C.sub.dt] = [h.sub.t]
3) [P.sub.Dt] = [m.sub.t-1] + [P.sub.Dt][D.sub.dt].
4) [R.sub.t][h.sub.t] = [m.sub.t-1] + [m'.sub.t] [equivalent]
[m.sub.1].
Next, consider a creditor born at date t, t [greater than or equal
to] 1. Suppose that the young creditor sells 1 - [C.sub.ct] units of her
endowment C-good to young debtors, accepting [l.sub.t], dollars personal
debt in exchange in the morning.
She consumes the remaining [C.sub.ct] units of her endowment. At
date t + 1, she goes to the central clearing market to settle the debt
she holds in the morning, and then purchases [D.sub.c(t+1)] units of
D-good for consumption with the repayment money from young debtors in
the afternoon. Her lifetime utility is given by log([C.sub.ct]) +
[beta]log([D.sub.c(t+1)]), where [beta] is the discount factor. The
creditor's date-(t+l) consumption depends on her experience at the
clearing market. If the creditor is able to settle her debt holdings
directly with her debtor and does not purchase second-hand debt (group X
or group [Z.sub.1] creditor), let her date-(t+1) consumption be
[[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c(t+1)]. If she leaves the market before her
debtor arrives (group Y creditor), assume that she trades the debt
holdings for money at discount [[rho].sub.t+1] [less than or equal to]
with other late-leaving creditors who have been repaid, and the proceeds
yield her [[D.sup.Y].sub.c(t+1)] units of D-good. If she leaves the
market late but settles with her debtor early, and purchases group Y
creditors' debt at discount [[rho].sub.t+1] (group [Z.sub.2]
creditor), she obtains unredeemed debt valued at l/[P.sub.t+1] times of
her original debt payment. Suppose that the repayment of these debt
purchases affords her [[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c(t+1)] units of D-good
consumption. Mathematically, the creditor chooses her contingent
consumption bundle ([C.sub.ct], [[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c(t+1)],
[[D.sup.Y].sub.c(t+1)], [[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c(t+1)]) subject to her
budget constraints to maximize her expected utility,
5) max (log([C.sub.ct])+[beta][(alpha+[lambda]-2[alpha][lambda])log([[D.sup. [XZ.sub.1]].sub.c(t+1)]) +(1 -
[lambda])(1-[alpha])log([[D.sup.Y].sub.c(t+1)])+[alpha][lambda]log([[
D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c(t+1)])]
6) such that: [P.sub.Ct] = [P.sub.Ct][C.sub.ct]+[l.sub.t]
7) [l.sub.t][R.sub.t] =
[P.sub.D(t+1)][[D.sup.[XZ.sub.t]].sub.c(t+1)]
8) [[rho].sub.t+1][l.sub.t][R.sub.t]=[P.sub.D(t+1)][[D.sup.Y].sub.c(t+1) ]
9) (1/[[rho].sub.t+1])[l.sub.t][R.sub.t]=[P.sub.D(t+1)][[D.sup.[Z.sub.2] ].sub.c(t+1)].
An initial generation debtor does not play any role. An initial old
creditor spends her endowed [m.sub.0] dollar of money to purchase her
consumption, a first generation young debtor's endowment.
Since there are an equal number of debtors and creditors each
generation, and each agent is endowed with one unit of his/her
type-specific goods, for any date t [greater than or equal to] 1,
10) [h.sub.t] = [l.sub.t]
11) [C.sub.dt] + [C.sub.ct] = 1
12) [D.sub.dt] + ([alpha] + [lambda] -
2[alpha][lambda])[[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c(t+1)] +
(1-[lambda])(1-[alpha])[[D.sup.Y].sub.c(t+1)] +
[alpha][lambda][[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c(t+1)]. = 1.
Also since all young debtors obtain the same amount of money by
selling their endowment, the lump-sum transfer of money [m'.sub.t]
satisfies, for any t [greater than or equal to] 1,
13) [m'.sub.t] = i*[m.sub.t-1].
The D-good market (goods for money) clears, that is, for any t
[greater than or equal to] 1,
14) [P.sub.Dt](1-[D.sub.dt]) = [m.sub.t-1].
Define the interest rate to be the relative nominal price of the
D-good across periods, [1] for all t [greater than or equal to] 1,
15) [R.sub.t] = [P.sub.D(t+1)]/[P.sub.Dt].
The debt discounting rate [[rho].sub.t+1] is determined by the
demand and the supply of the unredeemed debt,
16) [[rho].sub.t+1] = min
{1,[alpha][lambda]/(1-[lambda])(1-[alpha])}.
In such a model, a stationary equilibrium with active trading is
efficient. An equilibrium is stationary if all creditors (or all
debtors) across generations consume the same amount, that is, for all t
[greater than or equal to] 1,
17) [C.sub.dt] = [C.sub.d], [C.sub.ct] = [C.sub.c], [D.sub.dt] =
[D.sub.d], [[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.ct] = [[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c],
[[D.sup.Y].sub.ct] = [[D.sup.Y].sub.c], [[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.ct] =
[[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c].
Depending on the parameter values, there are two possible
stationary trading equilibria. In equilibrium 1, [alpha][lambda]
[greater than or equal to] (1-[lambda])(1-[alpha]). Equilibrium (*) is
in fact the same as this case; there is no liquidity shortage, and debt
is not discounted, that is, [[rho].sub.t+1] = 1. Hence, from equations 7
through 9, [[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c] = [[D.sup.Y].sub.c] =
[[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c] [equivalent] [D.sub.c]. The solution of the
model is given by
18) [C.sub.d] = [beta]/[beta]+1, [C.sub.c] = 1/[beta]+1,
[D.sub.d] = i+1/i+2, [D.sub.c] = 1/i+2,
[P.sub.D1] = [m.sub.0](i+2), [P.sub.C1] = [m.sub.0]
[beta]+1/[beta],
[P.sub.D(t+1)]/[P.sub.Dt] = [P.sub.C(t+1)]/[P.sub.Ct] = [R.sub.t] =
i+1.
In equilibrium 2, [alpha][lambda] [less than]
(1-[lambda])(1-[alpha]). In this case, debt is discounted. From equation
16, [[rho].sub.t+1] = [alpha][lambda]/(1-[lambda])(1-[alpha]). The
solution to the model differs from that of equilibrium 1 only in a
creditor's old age consumption, which is contingent on being a
group X, Y, or Z creditor.
19) [[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c] = 1/i+2, [[D.sup.Y].sub.C] =
[alpha][lambda]/(1-[lambda])(1-[alpha]) 1/i+2,
[[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c] = (1-[lambda])(1-[alpha])/[alpha][lambda]
1/i+2,
which satisfies [[D.sup.[Z.sub.2]].sub.c] [greater than]
[[D.sup.[XZ.sub.1]].sub.c] [greater than] [[D.sup.Y].sub.c]. This
equilibrium is inefficient.
If the central bank purchases group Y creditors' unredeemed
debt at par with newly issued money, and then takes the same amount of
money out when late-arriving debtors repay their debt, we get back to
the efficient equilibrium 1.
(1.) In fact, the model determines jointly [R.sub.t][PC.sub.t], the
gross nominal payment next period for the purchase of C good this
period. It does not determine [R.sub.t] separately. This definition of
the nominal interest rate is by convention.